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If $x=f(y)$ is the solution of the differential equation $\left(1+y^2\right)+\left(x-2 \mathrm{e}^{\tan ^{-1} y}\right) \frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{~d} x}=0, y \in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$ with $f(0)=1$, then $f\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)$ is equal to :

JEE · Math · previous-year question

  1. A.$\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 4}$
  2. B.$e^{\pi / 12}$
  3. C.$\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 6}$correct
  4. D.$e^{\pi / 3}$

Answer

C. $\mathrm{e}^{\pi / 6}$

Explanation

$$\begin{aligned} & \frac{d x}{d y}+\frac{x}{1+y^2}=\frac{2 e^{\tan ^{-1} y}}{1+y^2} \\ & \text { I.F. }=e^{\tan ^{-1} y} \\ & x^{\tan ^{-1} y}=\int \frac{2\left(e^{\tan ^{-1} y}\right)^2 d y}{1+y^2} \\ & \text { Put } \tan ^{-1} y=t, \frac{d y}{1+y^2}=d t \\ & x e^{\tan ^{-1} y}=\int 2 e^{2 t} d t \\ & x e^{\tan ^{-1} y}=e^{2 \tan ^{-1} y}+c \\ & x=e^{\tan ^{-1} y}+c e^{-\tan ^{-1} y} \\ & \because y=0, x=1 \\ & 1=1+c \Rightarrow c=0 \\ & y=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}, x=e^{\pi / 6} \end{aligned}$$

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