$$(\mathrm{S} 1)~(p \Rightarrow q) \vee(p \wedge(\sim q))$$ is a tautology $$(\mathrm{S} 2)~((\sim p) \Rightarrow(\sim q)) \wedge((\sim p) \vee q)$$ is a contradiction. Then
JEE · Math · previous-year question
- A.only (S2) is correct
- B.both (S1) and (S2) are correct
- C.only (S1) is correct
- D.both (S1) and (S2) are wrong
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