The statement $$(p \wedge(\sim q)) \vee((\sim p) \wedge q) \vee((\sim p) \wedge(\sim q))$$ is equivalent to _________.
JEE · Math · previous-year question
- A.$$(\sim p) \vee(\sim q)$$
- B.$$p \vee(\sim q)$$
- C.$$\mathrm{p} \vee \mathrm{q}$$
- D.$$(\sim p) \vee q$$
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