JEE Math Practice Question
The value of $$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } 6\tan \left\{ {\sum\limits_{r = 1}^n {{{\tan }^{ - 1}}\left( {{1 \over {{r^2} + 3r + 3}}} \right)} } \right\}$$ is equal to :
- A.1
- B.2
- C.3
- D.6
Want to know if you got it right?
Answer this and thousands more real JEE previous-year questions free, get graded instantly, and climb the global ranked leaderboard.
Practice JEE free →More JEE Math questions
- What is the total number of distinct x \in \mathbb{R} for which \left|\begin{array}{ccc}x …
- Let m be the smallest positive integer such that the coefficient of x^{2} in the expansion…
- What is the total number of distinct x \in[0,1] for which \int_{0}^{x} \frac{t^{2}}{1+t^{4…
- Let \alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{R} be such that \lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{x^{2} \sin (\b…
- Let z=\frac{-1+\sqrt{3} i}{2}, where i=\sqrt{-1}, and r, s \in\{1,2,3\}. Let P=\left[\begi…
- For how many values of p, the circle x^{2}+y^{2}+2 x+4 y-p=0 and the coordinate axes have …
- Let f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} be a differentiable function such that f(0)=0, f\…
- For a real number \alpha, if the system \[ \left[\begin{array}{ccc} 1 & \alpha & \alpha^{2…