JEE Math Practice Question
If $$f(x)=\left|\begin{array}{ccc} 2 \cos ^4 x & 2 \sin ^4 x & 3+\sin ^2 2 x \\ 3+2 \cos ^4 x & 2 \sin ^4 x & \sin ^2 2 x \\ 2 \cos ^4 x & 3+2 \sin ^4 x & \sin ^2 2 x \end{array}\right|,$$ then $$\frac{1}{5} f^{\prime}(0)=$$ is equal to :
- A.2
- B.1
- C.0
- D.6
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